IIRC Malted barley is barley that has been sprouted then dried to release the amylase enzymes. The amylase enzymes are required to convert the grain starch to fermentable sugars. That is the main process taking place in the mash tun at 66C (or so). The enzyme, previously released by malting, is allowed to act on the grain starch in solution and the conversion proceeds over the course of one hour (or so).

My question: What would be the "technical difference" between 1-producing a wort using malted lager/pilsner barley in a "standard mashing process" (as described above) and 2-using raw (non malted) barley in the mash tun and adding amylase enzyme - such as "pilsner enzyme" and - and leaving it for a similar time. Would (or could) the two worts produced in these two ways produce a similar lager/pilsner after fermentation?

(I ask because corn syrup is not made from "malted" maize grain but from mixing/heating maize mash with amylase enzymes on a industrial scale. As the process is almost the same as mashing, I was wondering if a similar process could be used with "raw" barley to produce beer wort without the malting)

1 Answer 1


No, they would taste very different. Malting not only activates enzymes, the kilning changes the flavor.

  • Would much of a flavour be developed in Pilsner malt as it is only "dried" below 100C rather than kilned above 105C? If one dried ones raw barley in an oven at (say) 95C then would that be sufficient to put it on par with malted barley? (I accept this is a theoretical question). Jan 29, 2017 at 19:28
  • There is little flavor difference between pils malt and the pale malt that's usually used. Simply putting the barley in the oven won't work because it hasn't been malted Bith the malting and the kilning are what develops the flavor.
    – Denny Conn
    Jan 30, 2017 at 16:47
  • Obviously worthy of an experimental run - to confirm one way or the other. :) Mar 17, 2017 at 12:36

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